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back with habermas, because we're slowing down and need to pick up.

'Rousseau's democracy of unpublic opinion ultimately postulated the manipulative exercise of power. the general will was always right, the notorious passage stated, but the judgment that guided it was not always enlightened. it was therefore necessary to present matters as they were, sometimes as they were to appear. but why did rousseau not call the sovereign opinion of the people simple opinion? why did he identify it was opinion publique? the explanation is simple. a direct democracy required that the sovereign be actually present. the volonte generale as the corpus mysticum was bound up with the corpus physicum of the people as a consensual assembly... opinion publique derived its attribute from it, that is, from the citizens assembled for acclamation and not for the rational-critical public debate of a public eclaire.

p 98-9. habermas.